Assignment: NURS 3020 Health Assessment

Assignment: NURS 3020 Health Assessment

Assignment: NURS 3020 Health Assessment

Assignment: NURS 3020 Health Assessment

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NURS3020 Health Assessment

Week 2 Quiz

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• Question 1 The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the
nursing staff on the epidermal layer of skin. Which of these statements would
be included in the module? The epidermis is:

Answers: a. Highly vascular.

b. Thick and tough.

c. Thin and nonstratified.

d. Replaced every 4 weeks.

• Question 2 The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the
nursing staff on the dermis layer of skin. Which of these statements would be
included in the module? The dermis:

Answers: a. Contains mostly fat cells.

b. Consists mostly of keratin.

c. Is replaced every 4 weeks.

d. Contains sensory receptors.

• Question 3 The nurse is examining a patient who tells the nurse, “I
sure sweat a lot, especially on my face and feet but it doesn’t have an odor.”
The nurse knows that this condition could be related to:

Answers: a. Eccrine glands.

b. Apocrine glands.

c. Disorder of the stratum
corneum.

d. Disorder of the stratum
germinativum.

• Question 4 A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well-baby checkup.
The nurse observes the infant for the possibility of fluid loss because of
which of these factors?

Answers: a. Subcutaneous fat deposits are high in the newborn.

b. Sebaceous glands are
overproductive in the newborn.

c. The newborn’s skin is more
permeable than that of the adult.

d. The amount of vernix caseosa
dramatically rises in the newborn.

• Question 5 The nurse is aware that the four areas in the body where
lymph nodes are accessible are the:

Answers: a. Head, breasts, groin, and abdomen.

b. Arms, breasts, inguinal area,
and legs.

c. Head and neck, arms, breasts,
and axillae.

d. Head and neck, arms, inguinal
area, and axillae.

• Question 6 A patient’s thyroid gland is enlarged, and the nurse is
preparing to auscultate the thyroid gland for the presence of a bruit. A bruit
is a __________ sound that is heard best with the __________ of the
stethoscope.

Answers: a. Low gurgling; diaphragm

b. Loud, whooshing, blowing;
bell

c. Soft, whooshing, pulsatile;
bell

d. High-pitched tinkling;
diaphragm

• Question 7 The nurse is testing a patient’s visual accommodation, which
refers to which action?

Answers: a. Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object

b. Pupillary dilation when
looking at a far object

c. Changes in peripheral vision
in response to light

d. Involuntary blinking in the
presence of bright light

• Question 8 A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex. The nurse
recognizes that this reflex indicates that:

Answers: a. The eyes converge to focus on the light.

b. Light is reflected at the
same spot in both eyes.

c. The eye focuses the image in
the center of the pupil.

d. Constriction of both pupils
occurs in response to bright light.

• Question 9 A mother asks when her newborn infant’s eyesight will be
developed. The nurse should reply:

Answers: a. “Vision is not totally developed until 2 years of
age.”

b. “Infants develop the ability
to focus on an object at approximately 8 months of age.”

c. “By approximately 3 months of
age, infants develop more coordinated eye movements and can fixate on an
object.”

d. “Most infants have
uncoordinated eye movements for the first year of life.”

• Question 10 The nurse is reviewing in age-related changes in the eye for a
class. Which of these physiologic changes is responsible for presbyopia?

Answers: a. Degeneration of the cornea

b. Loss of lens elasticity

c. Decreased adaptation to
darkness

d. Decreased distance vision
abilities

• Question 11 Which of these assessment findings would the nurse expect to
see when examining the eyes of a black patient?

Answers: a. Increased night vision

b. Dark retinal background

c. Increased photosensitivity

d. Narrowed palpebral fissures

• Question 12 When performing an otoscopic examination of a 5-year-old child
with a history of chronic ear infections, the nurse sees that his right
tympanic membrane is amber-yellow in color and that air bubbles are visible
behind the tympanic membrane. The child reports occasional hearing loss and a
popping sound with swallowing. The preliminary analysis based on this
information is that the child:

Answers: a. Most likely has serous otitis media.

b. Has an acute purulent otitis
media.

c. Has evidence of a resolving
cholesteatoma.

d. Is experiencing the early
stages of perforation.

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assignment: nurs 3020 health assessment
Assignment: NURS 3020 Health Assessment

• Question 13 The nurse needs to pull the portion of the ear that consists
of movable cartilage and skin down and back when administering eardrops. This portion
of the ear is called the:

Answers: a. Auricle.

b. Concha.

c. Outer meatus.

d. Mastoid process.

Question 14 The nurse is examining a patient’s ears
and notices cerumen in the external canal. Which of these statements about
cerumen is correct?

Answers: a. Sticky honey-colored cerumen is a sign of infection.

b. The presence of cerumen is
indicative of poor hygiene.

c. The purpose of cerumen is to
protect and lubricate the ear.

d. Cerumen is necessary for
transmitting sound through the auditory canal.

• Question 15 When examining the ear with an otoscope, the nurse notes that
the tympanic membrane should appear:

Answers: a. Light pink with a slight bulge.

b. Pearly gray and slightly
concave.

c. Pulled in at the base of the
cone of light.

d. Whitish with a small fleck of
light in the superior portion.

• Question 16 The nurse is reviewing the structures of the ear. Which of
these statements concerning the eustachian tube is true?

Answers: a. The eustachian tube is responsible for the production
of cerumen.

b. It remains open except when
swallowing or yawning.

c. The eustachian tube allows
passage of air between the middle and outer ear.

d. It helps equalize air
pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane.

• Question 17 A patient with a middle ear infection asks the nurse, “What
does the middle ear do?” The nurse responds by telling the patient that the
middle ear functions to:

Answers: a. Maintain balance.

b. Interpret sounds as they
enter the ear.

c. Conduct vibrations of sounds
to the inner ear.

d. Increase amplitude of sound
for the inner ear to function.

• Question 18 The primary purpose of the ciliated mucous membrane in the
nose is to:

Answers: a. Warm the inhaled air.

b. Filter out dust and bacteria.

c. Filter coarse particles from inhaled
air.

d. Facilitate the movement of
air through the nares.

• Question 19 The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface
area are called the: Answers: a. Meatus.

b. Septum.

c. Turbinates.

d. Kiesselbach plexus.

• Question 20 The nurse is reviewing the development of the newborn infant.
Regarding the sinuses, which statement is true in relation to a newborn infant?

Answers: a. Sphenoid sinuses are full size at birth.

b. Maxillary sinuses reach full
size after puberty.

c. Frontal sinuses are fairly
well developed at birth.

d. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses
are the only sinuses present at birth.

• Question 21 The tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth
is the:

Answers: a. Uvula.

b. Palate.

c. Papillae.

d. Frenulum.

• Question 22 The salivary gland that is the largest and located in the
cheek in front of the ear is the _________ gland.

Answers: a. Parotid

b. Stensen’s

c. Sublingual

d. Submandibular

• Question 23 In assessing the tonsils of a 30 year old, the nurse notices
that they are involuted, granular in appearance, and appear to have deep
crypts. What is correct response to these findings?

Answers: a. Refer the patient to a throat specialist.

b. No response is needed; this
appearance is normal for the tonsils.

c. Continue with the assessment,
looking for any other abnormal findings.

d. Obtain a throat culture on
the patient for possible streptococcal (strep) infection.

• Question 24 The nurse is obtaining a health history on a 3-month-old
infant. During the interview, the mother states, “I think she is getting her
first tooth because she has started drooling a lot.” The nurse’s best response
would be:

Answers: a. “You’re right, drooling is usually a sign of the
first tooth.”

b. “It would be unusual for a 3
month old to be getting her first tooth.”

c. “This could be the sign of a
problem with the salivary glands.”

d. “She is just starting to
salivate and hasn’t learned to swallow the saliva.”

• Question 25 The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old patient. Which of these
findings would be expected for this patient?

Answers: a. Hypertrophy of the gums

b. Increased production of
saliva

c. Decreased ability to identify
odors

d. Finer and less prominent nasa

 

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